INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Questionnaire contains
FOURTEEN (14) pages including these Instructions pages. Check the number of
pages and the page numbers at the upper right hand corner of each page of
this Questionnaire and make sure it has the correct number of pages and their
proper numbers.
There are TEN (10) Essay Questions
numbered I to X (with subquestions), and TWENTY (20) Multiple Choice
Questions (MCQs) numbered I to XX, to be answered within four (4)
hours.
The essay portion contains
questions that are worth 80% of the whole examination, while the MCQ portion
contains questions worth 20%.
2. Read each question very
carefully and write your answers in your Bar Examination Notebook in the
same order the questions are posed. Write your answers only at the front,
not the back, page of every sheet in your Examination Notebook. Note well the
allocated percentage points for each number, question, or sub-question. In
your answers, use the numbering system in the questionnaire.
If the sheets provided in your
Examination Notebook are not sufficient for your answers, use the back pages
of every sheet of your Examination Notebook, starting at the back page of the
first sheet and the back of the succeeding sheets thereafter.
3. Answer the Essay questions legibly,
clearly, and concisely. Start each number on a separate page. An answer
to a sub-question under the same number may be written continuously on the
same page and the immediately succeeding pages until completed.
Your answer should demonstrate
your ability to analyze the facts presented by the question, to select the
material from the immaterial facts, and to discern the points upon which the
question turns. It should show your knowledge and understanding of the
pertinent principles and theories of law involved and their qualifications
and limitations. It should demonstrate your ability to apply the law to the
given facts, and to reason logically in a lawyer-like manner to a sound
conclusion from the given premises.
A mere "Yes" or
"No" answer without any corresponding explanation or discussion
will not be given any credit. Thus, always briefly but fully explain your
answers although the question does not expressly ask for an explanation.
At the same time, remember that a complete explanation does not require that
you volunteer information or discuss legal doctrines that are not necessary
or pertinent to the solution to the problem. You do not need to re-write or
repeat the question in your Examination Notebook.
4. MCQs are to be answered by
writing in your Examination Notebook the capital letter (A, B, C, D, or E)
corresponding to your chosen answer. The MCQ answers should begin in the
page following the last page of your essay answers.
There is only one correct answer
to every MCQ; choose the BEST answer from among the offered choices. Note that some MCQs may need careful analysis both of the
questions and the choices offered.
5. Make sure you do not write your
name or any extraneous note/s or distinctive marking/s on
your Examination Notebook that can serve as an identifying mark/s (such as
names that are not in the given questions, prayers, or private notes to the
Examiner).
Writing, leaving or making any
distinguishing or identifying mark in the Examination Notebook is considered
cheating and can disqualify you for the Bar examinations.
You can use the questionnaire for
notes you may wish/need to write during the examination.
HAND
IN YOUR NOTEBOOK WITH THIS QUESTIONNAIRE
J.
ARTURO D. BRION
Chairman 2013 Bar Examinations
ESSAY
QUESTIONS
I.
Alfie Bravo filed with the
Regional Trial Court of Caloocan, a complaint for a sum of money against
Charlie Delta. The claim is for Php1.5Million. The complaint alleges that
Charlie borrowed the amount from Alfie and duly executed a promissory note as
evidence of the loan. Charlie’s office secretary, Esther, received the
summons at Charlie’s office.
Charlie failed to file an answer
within the required period, and Alfie moved to declare Charlie in default and
to be allowed to present evidence ex parte. Ten days later, Charlie filed his
verified answer, raising the defense of full payment with interest.
I(A)
Was there proper and valid service of summons on Charlie? (3%)
I(B)
If declared in default, what can Charlie do to obtain relief? (4%)
II.
Yvonne, a young and lonely OFW,
had an intimate relationship abroad with a friend, Percy. Although Yvonne
comes home to Manila every six months, her foreign posting still left her
husband Dario lonely so that he also engaged in his own extramarital
activities. In one particularly exhilarating session with his girlfriend,
Dario died. Within 180 days from Dario’s death, Yvonne gives birth in Manila
to a baby boy. Irate relatives of Dario contemplate criminally charging
Yvonne for adultery and they hire your law firm to handle the case.
II(A)
Is the contemplated criminal action a viable option to bring? (3%)
II(B)
Is a civil action to impugn the paternity of the baby boy feasible, and if
so, in what proceeding may such issue be determined? (5%)
III.
While in his Nissan Patrol and
hurrying home to Quezon City from his work in Makati, Gary figured in a
vehicular mishap along that portion of EDSA within the City of Mandaluyong.
He was bumped from behind by a Ford Expedition SUV driven by Horace who was
observed using his cellular phone at the time of the collision. Both vehicles
- more than 5 years old – no longer carried insurance other than the
compulsory third party liability insurance. Gary suffered physical injuries
while his Nissan Patrol sustained damage in excess of Php500,000.
III(A)
As counsel for Gary, describe the process you need to undertake starting from
the point of the incident if Gary would proceed criminally against Horace,
and identify the court with jurisdiction over the case. (3%)
III(B)
If Gary chooses to file an independent civil action for damages, explain
briefly this type of action: its legal basis; the different approaches in
pursuing this type of action; the evidence you would need; and types of
defenses you could expect. (5%)
IV.
At the Public Attorney's Office
station in Taguig where you are assigned, your work requires you to act as
public defender at the local Regional Trial Court and to handle cases
involving indigents.
IV(A)
In one criminal action for qualified theft where you are the defense
attorney, you learned that the woman accused has been in detention for six
months, yet she has not been to a courtroom nor seen a judge.
What
remedy would you undertake to address the situation and what forum would you
use to invoke this relief? (3%)
IV(B)
In another case, also for qualified theft, the detained young domestic helper
has been brought to court five times in the last six months, but the
prosecution has yet to commence the presentation of its evidence. You find
that the reason for this is the continued absence of the employer-complainant
who is working overseas.
What
remedy is appropriate and before which forum would you invoke this relief?
(3%)
IV(C)
Still in another case, this time for illegal possession of dangerous drugs,
the prosecution has rested but you saw from the records that the illegal
substance allegedly involved has not been identified by any of the
prosecution witnesses nor has it been the subject of any stipulation.
Should
you now proceed posthaste to the presentation of defense evidence or consider
some other remedy? Explain the remedial steps you propose to undertake. (3%)
IV(D)
In one other case, an indigent mother seeks assistance for her 14-year old son
who has been arrested and detained for malicious mischief.
Would
an application for bail be the appropriate remedy or is there another remedy
available? Justify your chosen remedy and outline the appropriate steps to
take. (3%)
V.
The spouses Juan reside in Quezon
City. With their lottery winnings, they purchased a parcel of land in
Tagaytay City for P100,000.00. In a recent trip to their Tagaytay property,
they were surprised to see hastily assembled shelters of light materials occupied
by several families of informal settlers who were not there when they last
visited the property three (3) months ago.
To rid the spouses’ Tagaytay
property of these informal settlers, briefly discuss the legal remedy you, as
their counsel, would use; the steps you would take; the court where you would
file your remedy if the need arises; and the reason/s for your actions. (7%)
VI.
While leisurely walking along the
street near her house in Marikina, Patty unknowingly stepped on a garden tool
left behind by CCC, a construction company based in Makati. She lost her
balance as a consequence and fell into an open manhole. Fortunately, Patty
suffered no major injuries except for contusions, bruises and scratches that
did not require any hospitalization. However, she lost self-esteem, suffered
embarrassment and ridicule, and had bouts of anxiety and bad dreams about the
accident. She wants vindication for her uncalled for experience and hires you
to act as counsel for her and to do whatever is necessary to recover at least
Php100,000 for what she suffered.
What action or actions may Patty
pursue, against whom, where (court and venue), and under what legal basis?
(7%)
VII.
You are the defense counsel of
Angela Bituin who has been charged under RA 3019 ( Anti-Graft and Corrupt
Practices Act ) before the Sandiganbayan. While Angela has posted bail, she
has yet to be arraigned. Angela revealed to you that she has not been
investigated for any offense and that it was only when police officers showed
up at her residence with a warrant of arrest that she learned of the pending
case against her. She wonders why she has been charged before the
Sandiganbayan when she is not in government service.
VII(A)
What "before-trial" remedy would you invoke in Angela’s behalf to
address the fact that she had not been investigated at all, and how would you
avail of this remedy? (4%)
VII(B)
What "during-trial" remedy can you use to allow an early evaluation
of the prosecution evidence without the need of presenting defense evidence;
when and how can you avail of this remedy? (4%)
VIII.
On his way to the PNP Academy in
Silang, Cavite on board a public transport bus as a passenger, Police
Inspector Masigasig of the Valenzuela Police witnessed an on-going armed
robbery while the bus was traversing Makati. His alertness and training
enabled him to foil the robbery and to subdue the malefactor. He disarmed the
felon and while frisking him, discovered another handgun tucked in his waist.
He seized both handguns and the malefactor was later charged with the
separate crimes of robbery and illegal possession of firearm.
VIII(A)
Where should Police Inspector Masigasig bring the felon for criminal
processing? To Silang, Cavite where he is bound; to Makati where the bus
actually was when the felonies took place; or back to Valenzuela where he is
stationed? Which court has jurisdiction over the criminal cases? (3%)
VIII(B)
May the charges of robbery and illegal possession of firearm be filed
directly by the investigating prosecutor with the appropriate court without a
preliminary investigation? (4%)
IX.
For over a year, Nenita had been
estranged from her husband Walter because of the latter’s suspicion that she
was having an affair with Vladimir, a barangay kagawad who lived in nearby
Mandaluyong. Nenita lived in the meantime with her sister in Makati. One day,
the house of Nenita’s sister inexplicably burned almost to the ground. Nenita
and her sister were caught inside the house but Nenita survived as she fled
in time, while her sister tried to save belongings and was caught inside when
the house collapsed.
As she was running away from the
burning house, Nenita was surprised to see her husband also running away from
the scene. Dr. Carlos, Walter’s psychiatrist who lived near the burned house
and whom Walter medically consulted after the fire, also saw Walter in the
vicinity some minutes before the fire. Coincidentally, Fr. Platino, the
parish priest who regularly hears Walter’s confession and who heard it after
the fire, also encountered him not too far away from the burned house.
Walter was charged with arson and at his trial, the prosecution moved to introduce the testimonies of Nenita,
the doctor and the priest-confessor, who all saw Walter at the vicinity of
the fire at about the time of the fire.
IX(A)
May the testimony of Nenita be allowed over the objection of Walter? (3%)
IX(B)
May the testimony of Dr. Carlos, Walter’s psychiatrist, be allowed over
Walter’s objection? (3%)
IX(C)
May the testimony of Fr. Platino, the priest-confessor, be allowed over
Walter’s objection? (3%)
X.
As a new lawyer, Attorney Novato
limited his practice to small claims cases, legal counseling and the
notarization of documents. He put up a solo practice law office and was
assisted by his wife who served as his secretary/helper. He used a makeshift
hut in a vacant lot near the local courts and a local transport regulatory
agency. With this practice and location, he did not have big-time clients but
enjoyed heavy patronage assisting walk-in clients.
X(A)
What role can Attorney Novato play in small claims cases when lawyers are not
allowed to appear as counsel in these cases? (3%)
X(B)
What legal remedy, if any, may Attorney Novato pursue for a client who loses
in a small claims case and before which tribunal or court may this be
pursued? (4%)
MULTIPLE
CHOICE QUESTIONS
I. In a complaint filed by the
plaintiff, what is the effect of the defendant’s failure to file an answer
within the reglementary period? (1%)
(A)
The court is allowed to render judgment motu proprio in favor of the
plaintiff.
(B)
The court motu proprio may declare the defendant in default, but only after
due notice to the defendant.
(C)
The court may declare the defendant in default but only upon motion of the
plaintiff and with notice to the defendant.
(D)
The court may declare the defendant in default but only upon motion of the
plaintiff, with notice to the defendant, and upon presentation of proof of
the defendant’s failure to answer.
(E)
The above choices are all inaccurate.
II. Which of the following is
admissible? (1%)
(A)
The affidavit of an affiant stating that he witnessed the execution of a deed
of sale but the affiant was not presented as a witness in the trial.
(B)
The extra judicial admission made by a conspirator against his co-conspirator
after the conspiracy has ended.
(C)
The testimony of a party’s witness regarding email messagesthe witness
received from the opposing party.
(D)
The testimony of a police officer that he had been told by his informants
that there were sachets of shabu in the pocket of the defendant.
(E)
None of the above.
III. Leave of court is required to
amend a complaint or information before arraignment if the amendment
__________. (1%)
(A)
upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and
excludes any of the accused
(B)
upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and adds
another accused
(C)
downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense or
excludes any accused
(D)
downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense and
adds another accused
(E)
All the above choices are inaccurate.
IV. A Small Claims Court
__________. (1%)
(A)
has jurisdiction over ejectment actions
(B)
has limited jurisdiction over ejectment actions
(C)
does not have any jurisdiction over ejectment actions
(D)
does not have original, but has concurrent, jurisdiction over ejectment
actions
(E)
has only residual jurisdiction over ejectment actions
V. Character evidence is
admissible __________. (1%)
(A)
in criminal cases – the accused may prove his good moral character if
pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged
(B)
in criminal cases – the prosecution may prove the bad moral character of the
accused to prove his criminal predisposition
(C)
in criminal cases under certain situations, but not to prove the bad moral
character of the offended party
(D)
when it is evidence of the good character of a witness even prior to his
impeachment as witness
(E)
In none of the given situations above.
VI. When the court renders
judgment in a judicial foreclosure proceeding, when is the mortgaged property
sold at public auction to satisfy the judgment? (1%)
(A)
After the decision has become final and executory.
(B)
At any time after the failure of the defendant to pay the judgment amount.
(C)
After the failure of the defendant to pay the judgment amount within the
period fixed in the decision, which shall not be less than ninety (90) nor
more than one hundred twenty (120) days from entry of judgment.
(D)
The mortgaged property is never sold at public auction.
(E)
The mortgaged property may be sold but not in any of the situations outlined
above.
VII. The signature of counsel in
the pleading constitutes a certification that __________. (1%)
(A)
both client and counsel have read the pleading, that to the best of their
knowledge, information and belief there are good grounds to support it, and
that it is not interposed for delay
(B)
the client has read the pleading, that to the best of the client’s knowledge,
information and belief, there are good grounds to support it, and that it is
not interposed for delay
(C)
the counsel has read the pleading, that to the best of the client’s
knowledge, information and belief, there are good grounds to support it, and
that it is not interposed for delay
(D)
the counsel has read the pleading, that based on his personal information,
there are good grounds to support it, and that it is not interposed for delay
(E)
The above choices are not totally accurate.
VIII. Which among the following is
a requisite before an accused may be discharged to become a state witness?
(1%)
(A)
The testimony of the accused sought to be discharged can be substantially
corroborated on all points.
(B)
The accused does not appear to be guilty.
(C)
There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused whose discharge
is requested.
(D)
The accused has not at any time been convicted of any offense.
(E)
None of the above.
IX. Which of the following
distinguishes a motion to quash from a demurrer to evidence? (1%)
(A)
A motion to quash a complaint or information is fi led before the prosecution
rests its case.
(B)
A motion to quash may be fi led with or without leave of court, at the
discretion of the accused.
(C)
When a motion to quash is granted, a dismissal of the case will not
necessarily follow.
(D)
The grounds for a motion to quash are also grounds for a demurrer to
evidence.
(E)
The above choices are all wrong.
X. Which among the following is
not subject to mediation for judicial dispute resolution? (1%)
(A)
The civil aspect of B.P. Blg. 22 cases.
(B)
The civil aspect of theft penalized under Article 308 of the Revised Penal
Code.
(C)
The civil aspect of robbery.
(D)
Cases cognizable by the Lupong Tagapamayapa under the Katarungang Pambarangay
Law.
(E)
None of the above.
XI. What is the effect of the
pendency of a special civil action under Rule65 of the Rules of Court on the
principal case before the lower court? (1%)
(A)
It always interrupts the course of the principal case.
(B)
It interrupts the course of the principal case only if the higher court
issues a temporary restraining order or a writ of preliminary injunction
against the lower court.
(C)
The lower court judge is given the discretion to continue with the principal
case.
(D)
The lower court judge will continue with the principal case if he believes
that the special civil action was meant to delay proceedings.
(E)
Due respect to the higher court demands that the lower court judge
temporarily suspend the principal case.
XII. Findings of fact are
generally not disturbed by the appellate court except in cases __________.
(1%)
(A)
where the issue is the credibility of the witness
(B)
where the judge who heard the case is not the same judge who penned the
decision
(C)
where the judge heard several witnesses who gave conflicting testimonies
(D)
where there are substantially overlooked facts and circumstances that, if
properly considered, might affect the result of the case
(E)
None of the above.
XIII. Contempt charges made before
persons, entities, bodies and agencies exercising quasi-judicial functions
against the parties charged, shall be filed with the Regional Trial Court of
the place where the __________. (1%)
(A)
person, entity or agency exercising quasi-judicial function is located
(B)
person who committed the contemptuous act resides
(C)
act of contempt was committed
(D)
party initiating the contempt proceeding resides
(E)
charging entity or agency elects to initiate the action
XIV. When may a party fi le a
second motion for reconsideration of a final judgment or final order? (1%)
(A)
At anytime within 15 days from notice of denial of the first motion for
reconsideration.
(B)
Only in the presence of extraordinarily persuasive reasons and only after
obtaining express leave from the ruling court.
(C)
A party is not allowed to fi le a second motion for reconsideration of a final
judgment or final order.
(D)
A party is allowed as a matter of right to fi le a second motion for
reconsideration of a judgment or final order.
(E)
None of the above.
XV. In an original action for
certiorari, prohibition, mandamus, or quo warranto , when does the Court of
Appeals acquire jurisdiction over the person of the respondent? (1%)
(A)
Upon the service on the respondent of the petition for certiorari,
prohibition, mandamus or quo warranto, and his voluntary submission to the
jurisdiction of the Court of Appeals.
(B)
Upon service on the respondent of the summons from the Court of Appeals.
(C)
Upon the service on the respondent of the order or resolution of the Court of
Appeals indicating its initial action on the petition.
(D)
By respondent’s voluntary submission to the jurisdiction of the Court of
Appeals.
(E)
Under any of the above modes.
XVI. Extra-territorial service of
summons is proper in the following instances, except __________. (1%)
(A)
when the non-resident defendant is to be excluded from any interest on a
property located in the Philippines
(B)
when the action against the non-resident defendant affects the personal
status of the plaintiff and the defendant is temporarily outside the
Philippines
(C)
when the action is against a non-resident defendant who is formerly a
Philippine resident and the action affects the personal status of the
plaintiff
(D)
when the action against the non-resident defendant relates to property within
the Philippines in which the defendant has a claim or lien
(E)
All of the above.
XVII. When is attachment improper
in criminal cases? (1%)
(A)
When the accused is about to abscond from the Philippines.
(B)
When the criminal action is based on a claim for money or property embezzled
or fraudulently misapplied or converted to the use of the accused who is a
broker, in the course of his employment as such.
(C)
When the accused is about to conceal, remove, or dispose of his property.
(D)
When the accused resides outside the jurisdiction of the trial court.
XVIII. Maria was accused of libel.
While Maria was on the witness stand, the prosecution asked her to write her
name and to sign on a piece of paper, apparently to prove that she authored
the libelous material. Maria objected as writing and signing her name would
violate her right against self-incrimination. Was Maria’s objection proper?
(1%)
(A)
No, she can be cross examined just like any other witness and her sample
signature may be taken to verify her alleged authorship of the libelous
statements.
(B)
No, her right against self-incrimination is waived as soon as she became a
witness.
(C)
No, this privilege may be invoked only by an ordinary witness and not by the
accused when she opts to take the witness stand.
(D)
The objection was improper under all of A, B, and C.
(E)
The objection was proper as the right to self-incrimination is a fundamental
right that affects liberty and is not waived simply because the accused is on
the witness stand.
XIX. Danny filed a complaint for
damages against Peter. In the course of the trial, Peter introduced evidence
on a matter not raised in the pleadings. Danny promptly objected on the
ground that the evidence relates to a matter not in issue. How should the
court rule on the objection? (1%)
(A)
The court must sustain the objection.
(B)
The court must overrule the objection.
(C)
The court, in its discretion, may allow amendment of the pleading if doing so
would serve the ends of substantial justice.
(D)
The court, in its discretion, may order that the allegation in the pleadings
which do not conform to the evidence presented be stricken out.
(E)
The matter is subject to the complete discretion of the court.
XX. The Labor Arbiter, ruling on a
purely legal question, ordered a worker’s reinstatement and this ruling was
affirmed on appeal by the NLRC whose decision, under the Labor Code, is
final. The company’s recourse under the circumstances is to __________. (1%)
(A)
file a motion for reconsideration and if denied, file a petition for review
with the Court of Appeals on the pure legal question the case presents.
(B)
file a motion for reconsideration and if denied, appeal to the Secretary of
Labor since a labor policy issue is involved.
(C)
file a motion for reconsideration and if denied, file a petition for
certiorari with the Court of Appeals on the ground of grave abuse of
discretion by the NLRC.
(D)
file a motion for reconsideration and if denied, file a petition for review
on certiorari with the Supreme Court since a pure question of law is
involved.
(E)
directly file a petition for certiorari with the Court of Appeals since a
motion for reconsideration would serve no purpose when a pure question of law
is involved.
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Online Source: The Lawphil Project - Arellano Law Foundation
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